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Microbiology Step 1 Favorite SUPER high yielder… As Jessica Alba put it, “Let’s break it down for you…” (in her movie, ‘Belly’)…So you and your medical student Jessica A. sees a 35-year-old male who presents complaining of CC: right lower quadrant pain that began 48 hours earlier. A piece of the HPI: He has been previously healthy and without any history of gastrointestinal disease. He denies nausea or vomiting. Over the past 48 hours, he has developed a fever and non-bloody diarrhea. He never took any antibiotics and is also a virgin like the 80 year old man from a few concepts back. He hates re-fried rice and never had the money to travel anywhere outside the U.S. He eats lots of red meat and iron supplements. Labs and Physical Exam: His temperature is 38.5 C (101 F) no chills no vomiting, and there is localized right lower quadrant tenderness without mass. A rectal examination (we in the hospital call it an Medical Student Consult), reveal watery brown stool that is guaiac negative. Question: What is the bug and drug and morphology of the bug (gram neg rod or gram neg cocci or gram positive cocci, etc.)? (Again, break every question down into pieces, it will help you solve the problem. If you try to GULP it down at once, you will CHOKE). Key point…! a) Campylbacter jejuni b) Salmonella typhi c) Shigella dysentery d) E-coli 0157:H7 e) B. cereus f) Yersenia enterocolitica g) Staph aureus toxin infection h) HIV i) Tuberculosis j) H. pylori gastritis k) C. difficle l) Amebiasis m) Inflammatory Bowel disease (interesting choices eh?) n) Appendicitis [For each of the above, please tell me WHY the answer is wrong if in fact it is wrong which must be true because there is one true answer…hehehe…Seriously though, you will learn a lot if you can master this ONE question concept.] :( :confused:

QBank Subjects

Subject: Tommy's Concepts

Question

Microbiology Step 1 Favorite SUPER high yielder…
As Jessica Alba put it, “Let’s break it down for you…” (in her movie, ‘Belly’)…So you and your medical student Jessica A. sees a 35-year-old male who presents complaining of
CC: right lower quadrant pain that began 48 hours earlier.
A piece of the HPI: He has been previously healthy and without any history of gastrointestinal disease. He denies nausea or vomiting. Over the past 48 hours, he has developed a fever and non-bloody diarrhea. He never took any antibiotics and is also a virgin like the 80 year old man from a few concepts back. He hates re-fried rice and never had the money to travel anywhere outside the U.S. He eats lots of red meat and iron supplements.
Labs and Physical Exam: His temperature is 38.5 C (101 F) no chills no vomiting, and there is localized right lower quadrant tenderness without mass. A rectal examination (we in the hospital call it an Medical Student Consult), reveal watery brown stool that is guaiac negative.
Question: What is the bug and drug and morphology of the bug (gram neg rod or gram neg cocci or gram positive cocci, etc.)? (Again, break every question down into pieces, it will help you solve the problem. If you try to GULP it down at once, you will CHOKE). Key point…!
a) Campylbacter jejuni
b) Salmonella typhi
c) Shigella dysentery
d) E-coli 0157:H7
e) B. cereus
f) Yersenia enterocolitica
g) Staph aureus toxin infection
h) HIV
i) Tuberculosis
j) H. pylori gastritis
k) C. difficle
l) Amebiasis
m) Inflammatory Bowel disease (interesting choices eh?)
n) Appendicitis
[For each of the above, please tell me WHY the answer is wrong if in fact it is wrong which must be true because there is one true answer…hehehe…Seriously though, you will learn a lot if you can master this ONE question concept.]

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